Open-end and Closed-end Funds in the Sub-prime Mess
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Let’s
continue to discuss the current sub-prime mess and review the characteristics
of open-end funds and closed-end funds in the CFA exam (Alternative
Investments).
Due to the sub-prime mess, there are two
important consequences in the headlines. Last week, BNP Paribas SA in
Why did BNP Paribas SA and Sentinel
Management Group have to block redemption?
First of all, a fund is formed when
the investment company gathers the money from investors and uses them to buy assets
(securities, bonds etc). For example, if there are 1000 investors and each pay
$1000, this will form a $1 million fund. A fund
manager will be hired to manage the $1 million by buying securities or other
financial instruments (and hopefully they will appreciate).
The fund can be closed-end or open-end (in US, it is also called
mutual fund). For a
closed-end fund, the number of share is fixed. For example, each of the 1000
investors may be holding 1 share of the fund. So each share is $1000. If
someone wants to join the fund, he has to buy the share from these investors. So,
closed-end funds are traded in the secondary market (e.g. NYSE) just like other
regular stocks. Holding a closed-end fund share is just like holding a normal
stock of the fund company (except that the fund company has no product but just
buying other financial instruments and earns profits when the assets
appreciate). Similarly, if one wants to quit the fund, one can just sell his
share in the secondary market.
The other type of fund is the open-end fund. BNP Paribas SA is an open-end fund.
In an open-end fund, the number of share is not fixed. If one wants to join, he
can let the investment company know and the company will create an additional
share for him! For example, one can invest $2000 and 2 additional shares will
be created. The investment company will then use the $2000 to buy more
financial assets. Similarly, if one wants to quit the fund, he cannot sell his
shares in the secondary market. Instead, the fund manager will sell some of the
fund assets and pay the share owner $1000 for a share. The total number of
share of the fund will then be reduced. This process is called redemption.
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Now, let’s say you own some
shares of BNP Paribas SA. You heard that this fund has assets including MBS and
some are related to sub-prime mortgage. Due to the credit crisis, you have no
faith anymore. So you decided to redeem the shares. The fund manager in BNP
Paribas SA has to give you the money back based on the fair value of the share.
In order to get the money, he has to sell the assets as soon as possible. Among
the assets, there are some high graded assets (e.g. blue chip stocks) which
have very high liquidity. And some have very low liquidity (e.g. MBS in this
case). He has no choice but to sell all the high graded assets first in order
to give you the money back (he just can’t sell MBS because no one wants
to buy at this moment!). As a result, as more people redeem their shares, the
high graded assets and high growth-rate assets will be sold (and can be at
prices below the fair values) while those low liquidity ones are kept. So the
total fund asset value will drop substantially. And more and more assets have
to be sold at prices much lower than the fair values!
In order to prevent this, they
choose to block redemption and only resume when the market is recovered from
the irrational response to the sub-prime mess.
While for closed-end fund, although
the value per share will also dropped (due to the demand and supply
relationship in the secondary market), they can be recovered automatically once
the crisis is gone. No asset selling is required (so no permanent loss) for the
fund manager. Therefore, closed-end fund is at a better shape than the open-end
fund in this crisis.
Finally, you should know how to calculate the Net Asset Value (NAV) of a fund. NAV is
the value per share.
NAV = (total asset – liabilities) / total number of
shares
Hey Mate,
Certainly a nice article…Keep posting such good articles……
Rgds Chin
The Explaination is too good and clearly explained for anybody to understand.
The Sub-prime mess seem to have started due to change in economic conditions – i.e Increase in interest rates. What caused the increase in interest rate? – why did the US gov increase the interest rate, does it have something to do with the increase in inflation rate?
Yes, you are right. Fed. is trying to control the Inflation by increasing the interest rate. As you may recall, in last few years housing prices were increased so rapidly which created “Big Real Estate Bubble”. Adding fuel to the fire, increase in oil prices and Gas prices have added inflationary pressure into the the Economy.